When Jesus was explaining to Nicodemus that "... no-one can see the kingdom of God unless he is born again ..." [bible:niv:nt:john3], was he referring to the Jews, who believed that inheritance of the kingdom had already come to them through birth ?
If Jesus had the same conversation with a Gentile, who would not hear the same message since their own birth implied no spiritual favour, would he have used the 'birth' analogy at all ?
Put another way, should believers be telling Gentile unbelievers that they must be 'born again' ?
