When Jesus was explaining to Nicodemus that "... no-one can see the kingdom of God unless he is born again ..." [bible:niv:nt:john3], was he referring to the Jews, who believed that inheritance of the kingdom had already come to them through birth ?
If Jesus had the same conversation with a Gentile, who would not hear the same message since their own birth implied no spiritual favour, would he have used the 'birth' analogy at all ?
Put another way, should believers be telling Gentile unbelievers that they must be 'born again' ?
3 comments:
Wasn't Jesus just using an illustration? Taking something physical which people can relate to to make a spiritual point? Jesus upped the level from belief that a physical birth as one of God's people was sufficient to see acceptance in the kingdom of God, to see that it had to be something - a new start - like a birth - which had to begin in the spiritual. Did he use the same reference at any other time? Not that I'm aware of! (correct me if I'm wrong!) If its a useful image use it, if not, let God inspire something which will speak into the particular life you're engaging with
In my Bible translation I have born again or possibly born from above - that changes the answer dramtically I would think.
On the flip side of the coin, Nicodemus who through physical birth thought he received spiritual favour, how much more easy it is for gentiles who receive no favour through physical birth to grasp the truth of spiritual re-birth or receiving the Holy Spirit?
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